Audism - The Definition and the Audist View

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why? It is very likely that it did help him speak better (than he did before). That in no way says that he is superior to someone who does not speak or that speaking is better than signing.

If you understood audism, you would already have the answer to your question.

The very act of feeling that speaking better is preferable to not speaking is audist. One is not likely to indicate pride unless they believe the situation is now better.
 
Have you read the thread?

I've read it. Now why do you think that the deaf who have to deal with this this day in and day out do not get to define it? Do they not know better than anyone else who never experienced hearing loss and audist views from their own families what they're dealing with?
 
Exactly.

Back to square one. You're deaf? Then shut up and put up. We will teach you how to talk, but don't you dare speak your mind. THAT's the message that's out there. That is the underlying foundation of audism.
 
Exactly.

Back to square one. You're deaf? Then shut up and put up. We will teach you how to talk, but don't you dare speak your mind. THAT's the message that's out there. That is the underlying foundation of audism.
Exactly.
Yep, and that's implied in txgolfer's posts and a few others.
 
Since some appear to have become confused re: the intent of the thread, here is the OP again, so one does not have to scroll back to read it.

It appears a need to have some clarification on this issue that 'pushes buttons' for many of us. Some do not seem to have a clear understanding of this view and it's concept. In starting this thread it is my intention in an attempt to make it as clear-cut as possible. Some people claim they are not audists, but intentionally or unintentionally spout audist views. Perhaps if we state clearly what specifies that viewpoint, it could clear up some misunderstandings.

NB: Please do not directly quote anyone on this forum as personal attacks are not permitted and it is not the intention of this thread. Please also note that comments made on a certain post are NOT personally directed at the poster but at what the post is quoting as a example of view.

May I begin with the Definition of Audism by the person who coined the word:

Audism: The notion that one is superior based on one’s ability to hear or behave in the manner of one who hears. --Tom Humphries

Please post below what you understand to be an AUDIST view.
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That is not the intent of the thread. Check the OP.


From the OP

Some people claim they are not audists, but intentionally or unintentionally spout audist views. Perhaps if we state clearly what specifies that viewpoint, it could clear up some misunderstandings.


Just attempting to clear up the misunderstandings. :wave:
 
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jillio said:
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why? It is very likely that it did help him speak better (than he did before). That in no way says that he is superior to someone who does not speak or that speaking is better than signing.

If you understood audism, you would already have the answer to your question.

The very act of feeling that speaking better is preferable to not speaking is audist. One is not likely to indicate pride unless they believe the situation is now better.

no way. If a parent "brags" that his child has really taken off in ASL since attending a deaf school, that automatically means that he values ASL MORE than English? Nope. He very well could value them both and just noting improvement.

valuing one thing does NOT by default mean you do not value another.
 
Wirelessly posted



no way. If a parent "brags" that his child has really taken off in ASL since attending a deaf school, that automatically means that he values ASL MORE than English? Nope. He very well could value them both and just noting improvement.

valuing one thing does NOT by default mean you do not value another.

You still don't get it. Keep trying.
 
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