Wrong word order?

Daredevel7 said:
I have a question out of curiosity.. if there was a standardized test specifically for the deaf, what would happen if a hearing person took this test? Would they also score "differently" just as the deaf scores differently on the current IQ test?
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Yes, they would.
 
jillio said:
Yes, they would.
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Interesting.....

Would a standardized test for the deaf be equally applicable to an oral deaf who never learned sign to a deaf person who learned ASL as his/her primary language?
 
Daredevel7 said:
Interesting.....

Would a standardized test for the deaf be equally applicable to an oral deaf who never learned sign to a deaf person who learned ASL as his/her primary language?
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I don't think there is an universally accepted test for this. IMO, just read the methodology section of the article/journals and see if it is acceptable to you as an individual reader. There are no right and wrong answers, justs tests that support a theory.
 
Daredevel7 said:
Interesting.....

Would a standardized test for the deaf be equally applicable to an oral deaf who never learned sign to a deaf person who learned ASL as his/her primary language?
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Yes. It is modified based on cognitive differences. An oral deaf will still be a very visual processor (think lip reading and visually picking up environmental cues). Interpretion would allow for impact of oral only and ASL as primay language. At any rate, the modified and standardized test for the deaf population would be more applicable than the one for the hearing population.
 
jillio said:
Yes. It is modified based on cognitive differences. An oral deaf will still be a very visual processor (think lip reading and visually picking up environmental cues). Interpretion would allow for impact of oral only and ASL as primay language. At any rate, the modified and standardized test for the deaf population would be more applicable than the one for the hearing population.
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I was going to ask, how does one assess matching the scale of the IQ between tests? For example, a deaf person and a hearing person of the same IQ would score the same for their respective tests.

I'm guessing that they take a large enough population and find the average for that special test and match it with the average of the common test?
 
Daredevel7 said:
I was going to ask, how does one assess matching the scale of the IQ between tests? For example, a deaf person and a hearing person of the same IQ would score the same for their respective tests.

I'm guessing that they take a large enough population and find the average for that special test and match it with the average of the common test?
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You are guessing correctly.:P That is the basic procedure for standardizing any test.
 
jillio said:
Yes. It is modified based on cognitive differences. An oral deaf will still be a very visual processor (think lip reading and visually picking up environmental cues). Interpretion would allow for impact of oral only and ASL as primay language. At any rate, the modified and standardized test for the deaf population would be more applicable than the one for the hearing population.
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Being raised orally deaf, I can witness from my own experience that what Jillio says is correct. We are still very visual with lip reading, reading facial expressions, body language and enviromental cues. (BTW, sign language is so much less taxing IMO).
 
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BecLak said:
Being raised orally deaf, I can witness from my own experience that what Jillio says is correct. We are still very visual with lip reading, reading facial expressions, body language and evironmental cues. (BTW, sign language is so much less taxing IMO).
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I agree. I used to end up with aches in my face from the strain of nonstop lipreading. It's exhuasting.
 
I wish the medical professionals and those of the hearing community who push so hard for oralism and audism could take heed to our comments on how exhausting and taxing being oral is to the deaf and all but for convenient comforming to a larger majority yet to many, especially of the older generation, it was not a matter of choice - but that of an implication of an experimental trend.
 
BecLak said:
I wish the medical professionals and those of the hearing community who push so hard for oralism and audism could take heed to our comments on how exhausting and taxing being oral is to the deaf and all but for convenient comforming to a larger majority yet to many, especially of the older generation, it was not a matter of choice - but that of an implication of an experimental trend.
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Hah, I agree. The last time I took the IQ test, the counselor gave me one designed for the deaf, and she frowned at the results. She then gave be a standard one and warned me that it was discriminatory to the deaf. I scored much higher on that one. I dunno. Maybe they ought to give everyone both tests and average the score. That ought to show 'em. :lol:
 
That causes me to wonder, how "Deaf/deaf/hoh" does one need to be in order to qualify for the "deaf" version of the IQ test?
 
Daredevel7 said:
I was going to ask, how does one assess matching the scale of the IQ between tests? For example, a deaf person and a hearing person of the same IQ would score the same for their respective tests.

I'm guessing that they take a large enough population and find the average for that special test and match it with the average of the common test?
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That's why standardizing tests should not be the only deciding factor of one's intelligence, skills, and etc.

Our students' progress are measured based on one standardized test once a year due to NCLB. It does not reflect what they know and what they are able to do.
 
GrendelQ said:
I don't think they accurately reflect intelligence. I think they are biased. I've not given her one. I think she's positively brilliant.

But I care about what her test results will be. She's going to be tested in school. It's going to have an impact on her placement, on how others perceive her, and on how she perceives herself, as I mentioned.
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jillio said:
And your untrained, unprofessional assessment of her being "positively brilliant" is not biased?
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1. I didn't mean to hurt your feelings by agreeing with PFH that standardized testing is BS.

2. I believe I have every right and every credential necessary to consider my daughter positively brilliant.

3. Never said I was an unbiased testing board.

4. Are you trying to prove that hearing people (such as yourself) really are inherently hostile to the deaf (such as my positively brilliant daughter) by suggesting otherwise?
 
Grendel - Ya know... In my experience... As a parent you have the power to decline testing.

You can tell if a subject is too easy/hard for your child, and go from there.

Just thought that'd help in your worries of having her tested?
 
I'm wondering if having appropriate, modified, standardized test for people who are d/Deaf is not so much "separate"/"special" as it is simply a means to make the test itself more of a level "playing field" ....so it's not "separate but un-equal" nor "special advantage" BUT that it's designed to account for any "differences" that would affect what the test is supposed to show?
 
jillio said:
Understood. That is why I stated that it was more of an ethnic thing than a Southern thing. Those same speech patterns can be found in the north in that population, as well.
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I disagre...its NOT an ethnic thing.

Every region in the US has a definite accent.
 
blaqueinque said:
I disagre...its NOT an ethnic thing.

Every region in the US has a definite accent.
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Yes, every region in the US has a definite accent and dialect but even within regions there are language variations among ethnic groups.

For example, in my region of the South Carolina Lowcountry, there is, of course, a regional accent. Within this same region though, the accent and dialect further differentiate between urban white Charlestonians and rural black Gullah/Geechee natives. Both groups live within a few miles of each other geographically but culturally they are worlds apart.

Another example would be NYC. They are all New Yorkers but they aren't all the same ethnic group. Each ethnic group within NYC has its own accent and dialect.

People's ethnic cultures do influence their language separate from just their geographical regions.
 
Reba said:
Yes, every region in the US has a definite accent and dialect but even within regions there are language variations among ethnic groups.

For example, in my region of the South Carolina Lowcountry, there is, of course, a regional accent. Within this same region though, the accent and dialect further differentiate between urban white Charlestonians and rural black Gullah/Geechee natives. Both groups live within a few miles of each other geographically but culturally they are worlds apart.

Another example would be NYC. They are all New Yorkers but they aren't all the same ethnic group. Each ethnic group within NYC has its own accent and dialect.

People's ethnic cultures do influence their language separate from just their geographical regions.
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Beat me to it, but you said exactly what I would have said.
 
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