For the alcohol connoisseurs, help me settle a debate

AlleyCat

AlleyCat

Well-Known Member
Joined
Jun 18, 2005
Messages
18,779
Reaction score
2,287
Ok. We (my SO, I, and a bunch of friends who we have as guests regularly) are having a debate about the effects/amounts of alcohol.

Between all of us, we most often drink either:

1) red wine
2) beer
3) vodka mixed with something (usually orange juice, cranberry, Sprite, etc.) It's never drunk straight-up.

There's other mixed drinks but they are far, far less frequent so I'll leave those out of this.

The guys think that red wine or beer are more potent than vodka because it's drunk straight out of the bottle or can. When they make a vodka-mixed drink, the ratio is usually about 1/10 vodka, 9/10 the "other" liquid as I said above. So, they think the amount of vodka's too little to be as potent as the wine or beer.

I think it's the other way around because I see vodka as a hard liquor versus what I see beer and wine as a "soft" liquor. Who's right?

Also, who is the more likely to feel the effects of the 3 choices above? Assume weight, age, gender, food consumption, all variables, etc. are the same for each person. Meaning I think that even if the guys were right that the 1/10 vodka ratio is less potent, vodka is still a hard liquor. So would the effects of the vodka-mixed drink be felt first before the wine or beer? Or am I making too big a deal of it being a hard liquor?

There's been no hard feelings, it's been a fun friendly debate. I'd just like to know if I have been spouting off a bunch of nonsense. :lol:
 
Can you clarify? I don't understand "forty".

I see that it says one bottle of wine is about 5 standard drinks (which can be 5 beers.) Considering that one standard bottle of wine gives us about 4 glasses, would that be more potent than 5 beers?
 
A "40" is 40 oz of beer.

What is the alcohol content of the wine? And of the beer? And how many ounces in each drink?

Let's say for example you have a bottle of 12 oz beer and it is 5.5% ABV (alcohol by volume). You can calculate 12*0.055=0.66.

Then you ehave a 6 oz glass of wine that is 12% ABV. 6*0.12=0.72.

And you have a shot of 80 proof vodka. A shot is 1.5 oz and 80 proof is 40% ABV. 1.5*0.4=0.6.

So the wine at 0.72 is a little stronger than the beer or the vodka.

Of course there are other factors such as food consumed, body weight, etc etc etc. So that is a rough indicator.
 
I believe I read somewhere that women have smaller livers and should consume less even with the same body weight as a man.
 
Glenn said:
A "40" is 40 oz of beer.

What is the alcohol content of the wine? And of the beer? And how many ounces in each drink?

Let's say for example you have a bottle of 12 oz beer and it is 5.5% ABV (alcohol by volume). You can calculate 12*0.055=0.66.

Then you ehave a 6 oz glass of wine that is 12% ABV. 6*0.12=0.72.

And you have a shot of 80 proof vodka. A shot is 1.5 oz and 80 proof is 40% ABV. 1.5*0.4=0.6.

So the wine at 0.72 is a little stronger than the beer or the vodka.

Of course there are other factors such as food consumed, body weight, etc etc etc. So that is a rough indicator.
Click to expand...

That's great info! One question: Where do you get 40% ABV from 80 proof?
 
Glenn said:
A "40" is 40 oz of beer.

What is the alcohol content of the wine? And of the beer? And how many ounces in each drink?

Let's say for example you have a bottle of 12 oz beer and it is 5.5% ABV (alcohol by volume). You can calculate 12*0.055=0.66.

Then you ehave a 6 oz glass of wine that is 12% ABV. 6*0.12=0.72.

And you have a shot of 80 proof vodka. A shot is 1.5 oz and 80 proof is 40% ABV. 1.5*0.4=0.6.

So the wine at 0.72 is a little stronger than the beer or the vodka.

Of course there are other factors such as food consumed, body weight, etc etc etc. So that is a rough indicator.
Click to expand...

Also, is the 1.5 oz shot (at 80% proof/40% ABV) diluted by the fact it's mixed in with 90% "other" (cranberry, orange juice, pop, etc.?)
 
AlleyCat said:
That's great info! One question: Where do you get 40% ABV from 80 proof?
Click to expand...
From the label. :)

That is the way it is done. Next time you are in the liquor store, read some labels. It (theoretically) goes to 200 proof, but you won't find that for sale anywhere. Everclear is 190 proof grain alcohol and is 95% ABV.
 
AlleyCat said:
Also, is the 1.5 oz shot (at 80% proof/40% ABV) diluted by the fact it's mixed in with 90% "other" (cranberry, orange juice, pop, etc.?)
Click to expand...
No, because it is "per drink." It is the same as that 12 oz of beer regardless of the size of the juice or whatever else you mix it with and consume as one drink. That is because the ABV doesn't change "per drink."
 
Glenn said:
No, because it is "per drink." It is the same as that 12 oz of beer regardless of the size of the juice or whatever else you mix it with and consume as one drink. That is because the ABV doesn't change "per drink."
Click to expand...

Ok, I was thinking that it was diluted in comparison to the 12 oz. beer because the guys make very tall drinks - probably what I would constitute as 20 oz. drinks, so only 1/10 of that is vodka.
 
AlleyCat said:
Ok, I was thinking that it was diluted in comparison to the 12 oz. beer because the guys make very tall drinks - probably what I would constitute as 20 oz. drinks, so only 1/10 of that is vodka.
Click to expand...
Only a small percentage of beer or wine is alcohol. It's the same concept.
 
A simple rule of thumb:

1oz of 80 proof shot = 1 glass of wine = 1 can of piss beer.

The proof came from the 18th century method of testing... Adding liquor to gunpowder and if the gunpowder still burnt - it was over 100proof. But nowadays scientific methods shows the % of alcohol was exactly half of the proof.
The reason behind the whole gunpowder thing is because back then they stored booze in ships next to the gunpowder. They did not want the gunpowder to go bad when the booze spilled into the gunpowder.
 
Glenn said:
No, because it is "per drink." It is the same as that 12 oz of beer regardless of the size of the juice or whatever else you mix it with and consume as one drink. That is because the ABV doesn't change "per drink."
Click to expand...

ABV does change with drinks...

If you added more water to shot of vodka, the ABV does reduce.
But the amount of alcohol does not change.


So to answer Alleycat's question - to reduce a "tall" orange juice and vodka mix to that of a beer:

17.5 oz of orange juice
2.5 oz of vodka
---will be 5% ABV.

18.4 oz of orange juice
1.6 oz of vodka
---will be 3.2% ABV.

So a 12 oz of 5% abv beer will be equal in amounts of alcohol to:

10.5 oz of orange juice
1.5 oz of vodka

and

5 oz of 12% abv wine.


Sooooo suppose they're doing the 10% vodka and 90% other stuff in a 20oz cup, they're in for the drunk first win. Just because they have 2 oz of vodka, and a can of 5% beer is around 1.5 oz of vodka as I have displayed in the comparison chart up above.
But that's saying there is no ice in that cup, you have a cup that big, there is actually 20oz of fluid, and everyone drinks at the same rate (meaning the dude who drinks the 20oz has to be drinking it fast, and the wine drinker has to drink it slowly).

For another comparison -

a 20 oz that contains 2 shots of vodka and 18 oz of juice equals:

20oz of 5% beer

8oz of 12% wine.


(note, the vodka I used in the comparisons are 40% abv vodkas. )

Hope I helped.
 
posts from hell said:
ABV does change with drinks...

If you added more water to shot of vodka, the ABV does reduce.
But the amount of alcohol does not change.


So to answer Alleycat's question - to reduce a "tall" orange juice and vodka mix to that of a beer:

17.5 oz of orange juice
2.5 oz of vodka

will be 5% ABV.
Click to expand...

That is correct. Honestly, it really depends on the size of the drink (and HOW MUCH ICE!).

There are too many variables. Bottled beer is the safest to assume how much alcohol there is. However, there is also draft beer. So you have to size up the glass and how much actual beer there is (also need to take account of % alcohol). Same with wine. Theoretically, the bartenders (or whoever pours the glass) must fill up the wine glass to where the curve ends, but some people put more. Same with mixed drinks. Usually, bartenders put one shot (1.5 oz) of whatever liquor, but they can put it in a lot of ice in a small glass, thus making it more "potent" (but still the same alcohol amount, but different ABV due to less juice or whatever).

My personal opinion? One drink of whatever (beer, wine, or mixed drink) contain about the same alcohol IF they are served typically. Beer = 1 bottle, wine = one typical glass, mixed drink = 1 shot (1.5 oz) of hard liquor.
 
Lets forget the science facts for a moment.
I'd say the mixed drinks can be more potent since the effects of alcohol shows faster since there is less of it to drink so you finish th same amount of alcohol. wine and beer takes longer since there is more liquid. you could be well on way to second mixed drink instead of wine/beer. If you were seen drinking more then 2 wines/beer you could be viewed as a drunk. having more then 2 mixed drink could be viewed as someone got wasted.

On the other hand having a mixed drink and done with it makes you recover quicker since you are "starting the clock" to process alcohol. make sense?
 
radioman said:
Lets forget the science facts for a moment.
I'd say the mixed drinks can be more potent since the effects of alcohol shows faster since there is less of it to drink so you finish th same amount of alcohol. wine and beer takes longer since there is more liquid. you could be well on way to second mixed drink instead of wine/beer. If you were seen drinking more then 2 wines/beer you could be viewed as a drunk. having more then 2 mixed drink could be viewed as someone got wasted.

On the other hand having a mixed drink and done with it makes you recover quicker since you are "starting the clock" to process alcohol. make sense?
Click to expand...

Well, now you are factoring in human behavior. (I CAN'T FORGET ABOUT SCIENCE FACTS!!! :) )

Obviously, if I were to get drunk faster, I'd get mixed drinks because there is less to drink overall. Of course, I am not putting in cost as a factor. Mixed drinks ARE expensive, and maybe 5 of 2 dollar beers will get you more drunk than 1 of 10 dollar mixed drinks. But then again people usually tip PER drink, so..

I better just stop thinking about this before I start coding a program that simulates the cost benefit analysis of alcohol/drunkness for the average drinker.
 
Really interesting comments. Thanks, everyone! So I think I can safely assume to a pretty reasonable degree that for as long as each of us are drinking 1 drink -- whether someone has a glass of wine, a bottle of beer, or a mixed drink -- and drinking/finishing at the same pace, we're all about even.
 
Daredevel7 said:
Well, now you are factoring in human behavior. (I CAN'T FORGET ABOUT SCIENCE FACTS!!! :) )

Obviously, if I were to get drunk faster, I'd get mixed drinks because there is less to drink overall. Of course, I am not putting in cost as a factor. Mixed drinks ARE expensive, and maybe 5 of 2 dollar beers will get you more drunk than 1 of 10 dollar mixed drinks. But then again people usually tip PER drink, so..

I better just stop thinking about this before I start coding a program that simulates the cost benefit analysis of alcohol/drunkness for the average drinker.
Click to expand...

:lol: At least I hope you had fun thinking about this! :)
 
Back
Top