I get no response on hearing tests from my left ear (since the age of 5) and at this point am profound in the right. But, the right was very good during my school years and all I did was sit wherever the teacher was going to be talking from most (I particularly remember one that was usually at the side rather than front). Thus, I had no contact with sign until many, many years later as the right deteriorated as an adult. I took sign through the local community college twice but made NO contacts to really use it and have forgotten 99% of what I did learn. This background is a good part of the reason for me bringing up what follows.
I have come across numerous things about ASL and American English being different. BUT why? Can’t think of the names at the moment but I have read history that talks of about a guy from here getting a guy from France to develop sign. Why wouldn’t he have him follow English grammar if it was to be used in an English speaking country?
The difference seems to show up in written English by someone who’s first language was sign. I think this lack of English grammar in writing may well be an obstacle to employment, especially in certain fields.
Is there that radical difference between sign and spoken/written language in other languages? If so why?
Going ahead and actually posting something about this after thinking about it for a long time was inspired by this thread http://www.alldeaf.com/sign-languag...eech-grammar-where-you-going.html#post2036892
I have come across numerous things about ASL and American English being different. BUT why? Can’t think of the names at the moment but I have read history that talks of about a guy from here getting a guy from France to develop sign. Why wouldn’t he have him follow English grammar if it was to be used in an English speaking country?
The difference seems to show up in written English by someone who’s first language was sign. I think this lack of English grammar in writing may well be an obstacle to employment, especially in certain fields.
Is there that radical difference between sign and spoken/written language in other languages? If so why?
Going ahead and actually posting something about this after thinking about it for a long time was inspired by this thread http://www.alldeaf.com/sign-languag...eech-grammar-where-you-going.html#post2036892