Dennis S.
Active Member
- Joined
- Nov 22, 2003
- Messages
- 1,857
- Reaction score
- 1
So, I was in a heated discussion. Why was the term "father and mother" used in the bible before Adam and Eve even had children or before even the whole concept of childrearing, or even birth or death.
The whole concept of father and mother is only after the fall of man and Adam and Eve bear Abel and Cain. But the bible brings it up before anything is ever mentioned. There's no reason to mention it here.
Of course, bible apologists will say, "It's like you're telling a story -- you've got to have little asides and explanations here and there." Whatever -- in this part of the whole book, you've got no "father" and "mother" -- you've only got God, and there's no way to leave God, because there's Eden and perfect bliss.
Genesis 2:20-24
But for Adam [h] no suitable helper was found. 21 So the LORD God caused the man to fall into a deep sleep; and while he was sleeping, he took one of the man's ribs and closed up the place with flesh. 22 Then the LORD God made a woman from the rib [j] he had taken out of the man, and he brought her to the man.
23 The man said,
"This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called 'woman, [k] '
for she was taken out of man."
24 For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh.
The whole concept of father and mother is only after the fall of man and Adam and Eve bear Abel and Cain. But the bible brings it up before anything is ever mentioned. There's no reason to mention it here.
Of course, bible apologists will say, "It's like you're telling a story -- you've got to have little asides and explanations here and there." Whatever -- in this part of the whole book, you've got no "father" and "mother" -- you've only got God, and there's no way to leave God, because there's Eden and perfect bliss.