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Athena · 10-10-2005, 05:12 PM

I am curious about something with the ADA. I know that it states that persons with disabilities must be given equal access to jobs. However, I am wondering if this applies when the disability that they have specifically makes them incapable of doing the specified job.

Like for example, hiring a blind person to do video survailence. Are exceptions made for things like that?

If so, what stops people from taking it too far? I could possibly see someone claiming, for example, that a Deaf person was not qualified for a job because it used phones, but phones were only for internal calls with co-workers and they could just as easily, for example, use email. This is clearly different then the example I gave above, but some people may try to blur the distinction for their advantage.

10-10-2005, 05:12 PM	#1 (permalink)
Athena Registered User Join Date: Jul 2005 Location: St. Paul, MN Posts: 39	Question about ADA I am curious about something with the ADA. I know that it states that persons with disabilities must be given equal access to jobs. However, I am wondering if this applies when the disability that they have specifically makes them incapable of doing the specified job. Like for example, hiring a blind person to do video survailence. Are exceptions made for things like that? If so, what stops people from taking it too far? I could possibly see someone claiming, for example, that a Deaf person was not qualified for a job because it used phones, but phones were only for internal calls with co-workers and they could just as easily, for example, use email. This is clearly different then the example I gave above, but some people may try to blur the distinction for their advantage.